The main reason that the Law ceased with the death of Christ is because the Church ( the Body of Christ ) is supposed to have began in Acts 2.
Col 2:14, having blotted out the handwriting of the ordinances against us, which was contrary to us, and He has TAKEN it out of sight, having NAILED it to the CROSS.
The verb " TAKEN " IN Col 2:14, is in the Perfect Tense , which indicates that the sffect of the " BLOTTING out " and " abolished " is in relation to the entire Dispensation of the Grace of God. What was taken out of sight ? ALL of the Law of Moses.
The opening pharse in Eph 2:15, " having abolished " can also be translated " having abolished BY His flesh, " looking back to the cross ." Having abolished is in the Aorist tense, ( the simple past tense in Greek ) , indicating that this did take place once and for ALL time ( Heb 10:12-14 ) . The word abolished signifies FINALITY -Calvary will NEVER be REPEATED.
There are 5 proofs in the book of Acts that the Law of Moss did not cease at the cross. They are ;
1) The Day of Pentecost itself, it was a vital part of the Law ( Lev 23:15-22 )
2) The miracles and signs of Acts 2:43 ; 3:7-8 ;, which was a commission of the 12 apostles
3) The deaths of Ananias and Sapphira in Acts 5 was according to the Law of Moses ( Ex 20:15-16 ; Joshua 7:11 )
4) There were many " priests " in Jerusalem who carried out the duties of the Law ( Acts 6:7 )
5) Many 1000 of Jewish believers were zealous of the Law of Moses as late as Acts 21:20. They sure were not reprimanded by Jamesbout their belief in Judaism.
Was the Law set aside at the Cross?
Tuesday, September 30, 2008, 02:11 PM EST [General]
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